BBS Toolkit/BBS Toolkit.iso/doors_1/general.zip/GENERAL.TXT

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 FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BA.
 Rules and Regulations.     4 Questions.


--------------------------------------------------

3A 3.2
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station on 10.14 MHz?

 A. 200 Watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 Watts DC input.
 C. 1500 Watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 Watts DC input.


3A 3.3
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station on 3725 kHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.


3A 3.4
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station on 7080 kHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.


3A 3.5
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station on 24.95 MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.


3A 3.7
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station transmitting on 21.150 MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts DC input.
 D. 1500 watts PEP output.















3A 4.1
How must a General control operator at a Novice station make
the station identification when transmitting on 7050 kHz?

 A. The control operator should identify the station with his
    or her call, followed by the word "Controlling"
    and the Novice call.
 B. The control operator should identify the station with his
    or her call, followed by the slant bar "/"
    and the Novice call.
 C. The control operator should identify the station with the
    Novice call, followed by the slant bar "/"
    and his or her call.
 D. The Novice Station should not be operated on 7050 kHz,
    even with a General class control operator.


3A 4.3
How must a newly upgraded General control operator with a
CERTIFICATE OF SUCCESSFUL COMPLETION OF EXAMINATION
identify the station when transmitting on 14.325 MHz pending
a receipt of a new operator license?

 A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz.
 B. No special form of identification is needed.
 C. The operator shall give His/Her call sign, followed by the
    words "temporary" and the two-letter ID code shown on
    the certificate of successful completion.
 D. The operator shall give His/Her call sign, followed by the
    date and location of the VEC examination where he/she
    obtained the upgraded license.


3A 6.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party traffic
be transmitted to a foreign country by an Amateur Station?

 A. Under no circumstances.
 B. Only if the country has a third-party traffic agreement
    with the United States.
 C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class
    licensee.
 D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with
    the United states.






















3A 6.2
What types of messages may be transmitted by an Amateur
station to a foreign country for a third person?

 A. Third-party traffic involving material compensation,
    either tangible or intangible, direct or indirect,
    to a third party, a station licensee, a control
    operator, or any other person.
 B. Third-party traffic consisting of business communications
    on behalf of any party.
 C. Only third-party traffic which does not involve material
    compensation of any kind, and is not business
    communication of any type.
 D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for
    third parties.


3A 6.6
What additional limitations apply to third-party messages
transmitted to foreign countries?

 A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to
    Amateurs in countries with which the US has a
    third-party traffic agreement.
 B. Third-party messages may only be sent to
    Amateurs in ITU Region 1.
 C. Third-party messages may only be sent to
    Amateurs in ITU Region 3.
 D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English.


3A 8.6
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station
transmitting on 29.64 MHz. repeat the 146.34 MHz. signals of an
Amateur Station with a Technician control operator?

 A. Under no circumstances.
 B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz. is operating
    under a SPECIAL TEMPORARY AUTHORIZATION
    allowing such retransmission?
 C. Only during an FCC declared GENERAL STATE OF
    COMMUNICATIONS EMERGENCY.
 D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter
    is authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz.


3A 9.1
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 160 meter band?

 A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only.
 B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only.
 C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only.
 D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only.












3A 9.2
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 75/80 meter band?

 A. 3525 to 3570 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only.
 B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only.
 C. 3525 to 3750 ans 3875 to 4000 kHz only.
 D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only.


3A 9.3
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 40 meter band?

 A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only.
 B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only.
 C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only.
 D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only.


3A 9.4
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 30 meter band?

 A. 10,100 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 B. 10,105 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 C. 10,125 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 D. 10,100 to 10, 125 kHz only.


3A 9.5
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 20 meter band?

 A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only.
 B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only.
 C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only.
 D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only.


3A 9.6
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 15 meter band?

 A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only.
 B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only.
 C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only.
 D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only.


















3A 9.7
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 12 meter band?

 A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only.
 B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only.
 C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only.
 D. 24,790 to 24,990 KHz only.


3A 9.8
What frequency privileges are authorized to General
operators in the 10 meter band?

 A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only.
 B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only.
 C. 28,100 tp 29,700 kHz only.
 D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only.


3A 9.9
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820 kHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.


3A 9.10
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950 Khz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only.


3A 9.11
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230 kHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.


3A 9.12
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra only.
 D. Technician only.












3A 9.13
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 C. Extra, Advanced only.
 D. Extra only.


3A 9.14
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced only.


3A 9.15
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895 MHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. None.


3A 9.16
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616 MHZ.?

 A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only.
 B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only.
 C. General, Advanced, Extra only.
 D. Advanced, Extra only.


3A 10.1
On what frequencies within the 160 meter band may
emission A3E be transmitted?

 A. 1800 - 2000 kHz. only.
 B. 1800 - 1900 kHz. only.
 C. 1900 - 2000 kHz. only.
 D. 1825 - 1950 kHz. only.


3A 10.2
On what frequencies within the 80 meter band may
emission A1A be transmitted?

 A. 3500 - 3750 kHz only.
 B. 3700 - 3750 kHz only.
 C. 3775 - 4000 kHz only.
 D. 3890 - 4000 kHz only.












3A 10.3
On what frequencies within the 40 meter band may
emission A3F be transmitted?

 A. 7225 - 7300 kHz only.
 B. 7000 - 7300 kHz only.
 C. 7100 - 7150 kHz only.
 D. 7150 - 7300 kHz only.


3A 10.4
On what frequencies within the 30 meter band may
emission F1B be transmitted?

 A. 10.140 - 10.150 MHz.
 B. 10.125 - 10.150 MHz.
 C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz.
 D. 10.100 - 10.125 MHz.


3A 10.5
On what frequencies within the 20 meter band may
emission A3C be transmitted?

 A. 14,200 - 14,300 kHz only.
 B. 14,150 - 14,350 kHz only.
 C. 14,025 - 14,150 kHz only.
 D. 14.150 - 14.300 MHz only.


3A 10.6
On what frequencies within the 15 meter band may
emission F3C be transmitted?

 A. 21,200 - 21,300 kHz only.
 B. 21,350 - 21,450 kHz only.
 C. 21,200 - 21,450 kHz only.
 D. 21,100 - 21,200 kHz only.


3A 10.7
On what frequencies within the 12 meter band may
emission J3E be transmitted?

 A. 24,890 - 24,990 kHz only.
 B. 24.890 - 24.930 kHz only.
 C. 24.930 - 24.990 kHz only.
 D. J3E is not permitted in this band.


















3A 10.8
On what frequencies within the 10 meter band may
emission A3E be transmitted?

 A. 28,000 - 28,300 kHz only.
 B. 29,000 - 29,700 kHz only.
 C. 28,300 - 29,700 kHz only.
 D. 28,000 - 29,000 kHz only.


3A 13.1
How is sending speed (signaling rate) for digital
communications determined?

 A. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time
    interval (in minutes) that occurs during a
    transmission, where each time interval is the period
    between changes of transmitter state (including
    changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or
    combination of these, as authorized).
 B. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time
    interval (in seconds) that occurs during a
    transmission, where each time interval is the period
    between changes of transmitter state (including
    changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or
    combination of these, as authorized).
 C. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time
    interval (in seconds) that occurs during a
    transmission, where each time interval is the period
    between changes of transmitter state (including
    changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or
    combination of these, as authorized).
 D. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time
    interval (in minutes) that occurs during a
    transmission, where each time interval is the period
    between changes of transmitter state (including
    changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or
    combination of these, as authorized).


3A 13.2
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for
an emission F1B transmission below 28 MHz?

 A. 56 kilobaud.
 B. 19.6 kilobaud.
 C. 1200 baud.
 D. 300 baud.


















3A 14.4
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur
Station engage in some form of broadcasting?

 A. During severe storms, Amateurs may broadcast
    weather information for people with scanners.
 B. Under no circumstances.
 C. If power levels under one watt are used,Amateur
    Stations may broadcast bulletins, but not music.
 D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz.


3A 14.6
What protection, if any, is afforded an Amateur Station
transmission against retransmission by a Broadcast Station?

 A. No protection whatsoever.
 B. The broadcaster must secure permission for the
    retransmission from the control operator
    of the Amateur Station.
 C. The broadcaster must petition the FCC for
    retransmission rights 30 days in advance.
 D. Retransmission may only be made during a declared emergency.


3A 15.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of
a Violin be transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When the music played produces no dissonances
    or spurious emissions.
 B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 C. Only above 1215 MHz.
 D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.


3A 15.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of
a Piano be transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 B. Only above 1215 MHz.
 C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.
 D. When the music played produces no dissonances
    or spurious emissions.


3A 15.4
Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of
a Harmonica be transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When the music played produces no dissonances
    or spurious emissions.
 B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.
 C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 D. Only above 1215 MHz.










3A 16.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur
Station transmit a message in secret codes
in order to obscure the meaning!

 A. Only above 450 Mhz.
 B. Only on Field Day.
 C. Never.
 D. Only during a declared communications emergency.


3A 16.2
What types of abbreviations or signals are not
considered codes or ciphers?

 A. Abbreviations and signals certified by the ARRL.
 B. Abbreviations and signals established by regulation or
    custom and usage and whose intent is to facilitate
    communication and not to obscure meaning.
 C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure
    the meaning of the message to FCC monitoring stations.
 D. Only "10 Codes" are permitted.


3A 16.3
When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in
domestic Amateur radiocommunications?

 A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances.
 B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during
    ARRL sponsored contests.
 C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during
    nationally declared emergencies.
 D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz.


3A 16.4
When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in
international Amateur radiocommunications?

 A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances.
 B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during
    IUT sponsored DX contests.
 C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during
    internationally declared emergencies.
 D. Codes and ciphers are permitted only on
    frequencies above 2.3 GHz.



















FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BB.
Operating Procedures.     3 Questions.


--------------------------------------------------

3B 1.4
What is meant by the term FLATTOPPING in
an emission J3E transmission?

 A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current.
 B. The transmitter's automatic level control
    is properly adjusted.
 C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive.
 D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed.


3B 1.5
How should the audio gain control be adjusted on
an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks.
 B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks.
 C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks.
 D. For a dip in plate current.


3B 2.1
In what segment of the 20 meter band do most emission F1B
transmissions take place?

 A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz.
 B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz.
 C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz.
 D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz.


3B 2.2
In what segment of the 80 meter band do most emission F1B
transmissions take place?

 A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz.
 B. 3500 to 3525 kHz.
 C. 3700 to 3750 kHz.
 D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz.


3B 2.3
What is meant by the term BAUDOT?

 A. Baudot is a 7 bit code, with start, stop and parity bits.
 B. Baudot is a 7 bit code in which each character has
    four mark and three space bits.
 C. Baudot is a 5 bit code, with additional start and stop bits.
 D. Baudot is a 6 bit code, with additional start, stop and
    parity bits.










3B 2.4
What is meant by the term ASCII?

 A. ASCII is a 7 bit code, with additional start, stop and
    parity bits.
 B. ASCII is a 7 bit code in which each character has
    four mark and three space bits.
 C. ASCII is a 5 bit code, with additional start and stop bits.
 D. ASCII is a 5 bit code in which each character has three
    mark and two space bits.


3B 2.6
What is the most common frequency shift for emission F1B
transmissions in the Amateur HF bands?

 A. 85 Hz.
 B. 170 Hz.
 C. 425 Hz.
 D. 850 Hz.


3B 2.10
What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?

 A. A Mark of 2125 Hz. and a Space of 2295 Hz.
 B. Baudot and ASCII.
 C. ARQ and FEC.
 D. USB and LSB.


3B 2.11
What is the meaning of the term ARQ?

 A. Automatic Repeater Queue.
 B. Automatic Receiver Quieting.
 C. Automatically Resend Quickly.
 D. Automatic Repeat Request.


3B 2.12
What is the meaning of the term FEC?

 A. Frame Error Check.
 B. Forward Error Correction.
 C. Frequency Envelope Control.
 D. Frequency Encoded Connection.



















3B 3.8
What is meant by a BANDPLAN?

 A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for
    operating within a specific portion of radio spectrum.
 B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations.
 C. A schedule for operating devised by the
    Federal Communications Commission.
 D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use
    to use a band during a contest.


3B 3.12
What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for
a 10 meter station in repeater operation?

 A. 100 kHz.
 B. 600 kHz.
 C. 1.6 MHz.
 D. 170 Hz.


3B 4.1
What is meant by VOX TRANSMITTER CONTROL?

 A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to turn on
    automatically when the operator speaks into the microphone.
 B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the
    transmitter when the operator switches from
    radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony.
 C. Circuitry that activates the receiver
    incremental tuning in a transceiver.
 D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone
    from the ambient noise level.


3B 4.2
What is the common name for the circuit that causes a
transmitter to automatically transmit when a person
speakes into the microphone?

 A. VXO.
 B. VOX.
 C. VCO.
 D. VFO.





















3B 5.1
What is meant by the term FULL BREAK-IN TELEGRAPHY?

 A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the
    breaking station sends the Morse Code symbol BK.
 B A system of radiotelegraph communication
    in which only automatic keyers can be used.
 C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which
    the operator must activate the send/receive
    switch after completing a transmission.
 D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which
    the receiver is sensitive to incoming
    signal between transmitted key pulses.


3B 5.2
What Q signal is used to indicate
full break-in telegraphy capability?

 A. QSB.
 B. QSF.
 C. QSK.
 D. QSV.


3B 6.1
When selecting an emission A1A transmitting frequency, what
is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress
that should be allowed in order to minimize interference?

 A. 5 to 50 Hz.
 B. 150 to 500 Hz.
 C. Approximately 3 kHz.
 D. Approximately 6 kHz.


3B 6.2
When selecting an emission J3E transmitting frequency,
what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in
progress that should be allowed in order to minimize
interference?

 A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers.
 B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers.
 C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers.
 D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers.


3B 6.3
When selecting an F1B RTTY transmitting frequency, what is
the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress
that should be allowed in order to minimize interference?

 A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center.
 B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center.
 C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center.
 D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center.









3B 7.1
What is an AZIMUTHAL map?

 A. A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole.
 B. A map projection, centered on a particular location,
    that determines the shortest path between
    two points on the surface of the earth.
 C. A map that shows the angle at which an Amateur satellite
    crosses the equator.
 D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude
    that an Amateur satellite appears to move westward
    at the equator with each orbit.


3B 7.2
How can an Azimuthal map be helpful in conducting
international HF radiocommunications?

 A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the
    shortest path to a DX station.
 B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting
    antenna height to conduct the desired communication.
 C. It is used to determine the angle at which an Amateur
    satellite cross the equator.
 D. It is used to determine the Maximum Usable Frequency (muf).


3B 7.3
What is the most useful type of map when orienting a
directional antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant?

 A. Azimuthal.
 B. Mercator.
 C. Polar projection.
 D. Topographical.


3B 7.4
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction
to another station is generally oriented how many degrees
from the short-path heading?

 A. 45 degrees.
 B. 90 degrees.
 C. 180 degrees.
 D. 270 degrees.


3B 7.5
What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?

 A. Approximately 0 degrees.
 B. Approximately 90 degrees.
 C. Approximately 180 degrees.
 D. Approximately 270 degrees.











3B 8.1
When permitted, transmissions to Amateur Stations in another
country must be limited to only what type of messages?

 A. Messages of any type are permitted.
 B. Messages that compete with public
    telecommunications services.
 C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
    character of relative unimportance.
 D. Such transmissions are never permitted.


3B 8.2
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
the continental United States?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.


3B 8.3
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.


3B 8.4
In which International Telecommunication Union Region
is American Samoa?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.


3B 8.5
For uniformity in international radiocommunication, what time
measurement standard should Amateur Operators worldwide use?

 A. Eastern Standard Time.
 B. Uniform Calibrated Time.
 C. Universal Coordinated Time.
 D. Universal Time Control.

















3B 8.6
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawii?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. region 4.


3B 8.7
In which International Telecommunication Union Region
is the Commonwealth of Northern Mariannas Islands?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.


3B 8.8
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.


3B 8.9
In which International Telecommunication Union Region
is Wake Island?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. region 4.


3B 10.1
What is the AMATEUR AUXILLARY to the
FCC's Field Operations Bureau?

 A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor
    the airwaves for rules violations.
 B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio
    licensing examinations.
 C. Amateur who conduct frequency coordination for
    Amateur VHF repeaters.
 D. Amateur who determine height above average terrain
    measurements for repeater installations.
















3B 10.2
What are the objectives of the AMATEUR AUXILLARY
to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?

 A. To enforce Amateur self-regulation
    and compliance with the rules.
 B. To foster Amateur self-regulation
    and compliance with the rules.
 C. To promote efficient and orderly
    spectrum usage in the repeater subbands.
 D. To provide emergency and public safety communications.























































FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BC.
Radio Wave Propagation.     3 Questions.


3C 1.6
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface
that can normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?

 A. Approximately 180 miles.
 B. Approximately 1200 miles.
 C. Approximately 2500 miles.
 D. No distance. This layer does
    not support radiocommunication.


3C 1.7
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface
that can be covered in one hop using the E layer?

 A. Approximately 180 miles.
 B. Approximately 1200 miles.
 C. Approximately 2500 miles.
 D. No distance. This layer does
    not support radiocommunication.


3C 1.9
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E Layer?

 A. 45 miles.
 B. 70 miles.
 C. 200 miles.
 D. 1200 miles.


3C 1.10
During what part of the day, and in what season of the year
can the F2 Layer be expected to reach its maximum height?

 A. At Noon during the Summer.
 B. At Midnight during the Summer.
 C. At Dusk in the Spring and Fall
 D. At Noon during the Winter.


3C 1.13
What is the CRITICAL ANGLE, as used in radio wave propagation?

 A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio
    wave to Earth under specific Ionospheric conditions.
 B. The compass direction of the desired
    DX station from your location.
 C. The 180 degree inverted c?mpass direction of the
    desired DX station from your location.
 D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio
    wave to Earth during specific Ionospheric conditions.










3C 2.3
What is the main reason that the 160, 80 and 40 meter
Amateur Bands can be used only for short distance
communications during daylight hours?

 A. Because of a lack of activity.
 B. Because of Auroral propagation.
 C. Because of D Layer absorption.
 D. Because of magnetic flux.


3C 2.4
What is the principal reason that the 160
through 40 meter bands are useful only for short
distance communications during daylight hours?

 A. F Layer bending.
 B. Gamma radiation.
 C. D Layer absorption.
 D. Tropospheric ducting.


3C 3.3
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from
Minnesota to Africa is 22 MHz., which band should
offer the best chance for a successful contact?

 A. 10 meters.
 B. 15 meters.
 C. 20 meters.
 D. 40 meters.


3C 3.4
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from
Ohio to West Germany is 17 MHz., which band should
offer the best chance for a successful contact?

 A. 80 meters.
 B. 40 meters.
 C. 20 meters.
 D. 2 meters.


3C 5.1
Over what periods of time do Sudden
Ionospheric Disturbances normally last?

 A. The entire day.
 B. A few minutes to a few hours.
 C. A few hours to a few days.
 D. Approximately one week.














3C 5.2
What can be done at an amateur station to continue
radiocommunications during a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance?

 A. Try a higher frequency.
 B. Try the other sideband.
 C. Try a different antenna polarization.
 D. Try a different frequency shift.


3C 5.3
What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the
daylight Ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

 A. Disrupts higher latitude paths
    more than lower latitude paths.
 B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies
    more than those on higher frequencies.
 C. Disrupts communiations via satellite
    more than direct communications.
 D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas
    of the globe are affected.


3C 5.4
How long does it take a Solar Disturbance that
increases the Sun's ultraviolet radiation to
cause Ionospheric Disturbances on Earth?

 A. Instantaneously.
 B. 1.5 Seconds.
 C. 8 Minutes.
 D. 20 to 40 Hours.


3C 5.5
Sudden Ionospheric Disturbances occur as a result of
radio wave absorption in which layer of the Ionosphere?

 A. D layer.
 B. E layer.
 C. F1 layer.
 D. F2 layer.


3C 6.2
What is a characteristic of BACKSCATTER signals?

 A. High intelligibility.
 B. A wavering sound.
 C. Reversed modulation.
 D. Reversed sidebands.














3C 6.4
What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?

 A. Auroral activity and changes in the Earth's magnetic field.
 B. The propagation through ground waves
    that absorb much of the signal's clarity.
 C. The Earth's E Layer at the point of radio wave refraction.
 D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to
    the transmitter skip zone through several radio wave paths.


3C 6.5
What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows
a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation.

 A. Ground wave.
 B. Scatter.
 C. Sporadic E skip.
 D. Short path skip.


3C 6.6
When does Ionospheric scatter propagation
on the HF bands most often occur?

 A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum.
 B. At night.
 C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined.
 D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency.


3C 7.1
What is SOLAR FLUX?

 A. The density of the Sun's magnetic field.
 B. The radio energy emitted by the sun.
 C. The number of sunspots on the side
    of the Sun facing the Earth.
 D. A measure of the tilt of the Earth's
    Ionosphere on the side toward the Sun.


3C 7.2
What is the SOLAR FLUX INDEX?

 A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity.
 B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily
    readings with results from the last six months.
 C. Another name for the American Sunspot Number.
 D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily.















3C 7.3
What is a timely indicator of solar activity?

 A. The 2300 MHz. Solar Flux Index.
 B. The Mean Canadian Sunspot Number.
 C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time.
 D. Van Allen Radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado.


3C 7.4
What type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band
is indicated by a Solar Flux Index of 60 to 70?

 A. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.
 B. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 C. Excellent Ionospheric propagation.
 D. Poor Ionospheric propagation.


3C 7.5
A Solar Flux Index of 90 to 110 indicates what type
of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band?

 A. Poor Ionospheric propagation.
 B. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 C. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.
 D. Good Ionospheric propagation.


3C 7.6
A Solar Flux Index of greater than 120 would indicate
what type of propagation conditions of the 10 meter band?

 A. Good Ionospheric propagation.
 B. Poor Ionospheric propagation.
 C. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 D. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.


3C 7.7
For widespread long distance openings on the 6 meter band,
what Solar Flux values would be required?

 A. Less than 50.
 B. Approximately 75.
 C. Greater than 100.
 D. Greater than 250.



















3C 7.8
If the MUF is high and HF radiocommunications are
generally good for several days, a similar condition
can usually be expected how many days later?

 A.  7 days.
 B. 14 days.
 C. 28 days.
 D. 90 days.


3C 10.1
What is a GEOMAGNETIC DISTURBANCE?

 A. A sudden drop in the Solar Flux Index.
 B. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole.
 C. Ripples in the Ionosphere.
 D. A dramatic change in the Earth's magnetic field
    over a short period of time.


3C 10.2
Which latitude paths are more susceptible
to Geomagnetic Disturbances?

 A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude.
 B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude.
 C. Equatorial paths.
 D. All paths are affected equally.


3C 10.3
What can be the effect of a major
geomagnetic storm on radiocommunications?

 A. Improved high latitude HF communications.
 B. Degraded high latitude HF communications.
 C. Improved ground wave propagation.
 D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF.


3C 10.4
How long does it take a Solar Disturbance that
increases the Sun's radiation of charged particles
to affect radio wave propagation on Earth?

 A. The effect is instantaneous.
 B. 1.5 Seconds.
 C. 8 Minutes.
 D. 20 to 40 Hours.


--------------------------------------------------

End of Subelement 3BC.











FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BD.
Amateur Radio Practice.     5 Questions.


--------------------------------------------------

3D 1.5
Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached
to fuses in a 234 VAC primary (Single Phase) power supply?

 A. Only the "Hot" (Black and Red) wires.
 B. Only the "Neutral" (White) wire.
 C. Only the "Ground" (Bare) wire.
 D. All wires.


3D 1.6
What size wire is normally used on a 15 Ampere,
117 VAC household lighting circuit?

 A. AWG No. 14.
 B. AWG No. 16.
 C. AWG No. 18.
 D. AWG No. 22.


3D 1.7
What size wire is normally used on a 20 Ampere,
117 VAC household appliance circuit?

 A. AWG No. 20.
 B. AWG No. 16.
 C. AWG No. 14.
 D. AWG No. 12.


3D 1.8
What could be a cause of the room lights
dimming when the transmitter is keyed?

 A. RF in the AC pole transformer.
 B. High resistance in the key contacts.
 C. A drop in AC line voltage.
 D. The line cord is wired incorrectly.


3D 1.9
What size fuse should be used on a
#12 wire household appliance circuit?

 A. Maximum of 100 amperes.
 B. Maximum of 60 amperes.
 C. Maximum of 30 amperes.
 D. Maximum of 20 amperes.












3D 2.4
What safety feature is provided by a
BLEEDER RESISTOR in a power supply.

 A. It improves voltage regulation.
 B. It discharges the filter capacitors.
 C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils.
 D. It eliminates Ground Loop current.


3D 3.1
What kind of input signal is used to test the
amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter
while vewing the output with an oscilloscope?

 A. Normal speech.
 B. An audio frequency sine wave.
 C. Two audio frequency sine waves.
 D. An audio frequency square wave.


3D 3.2
To test the amplitude linearity of an emission
J3E transmitter with an oscilloscope, what
should the audio input to the transmitter be?

 A. Normal speech.
 B. An audio frequency sine wave.
 C. Two audio frequency sine waves.
 D. An audio frequency square wave.


3D 3.3
How are two tones used to test the amplitude
linearity of an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into
    the microphone input of a J3E transmitter, and
    the output is observed on an oscilloscope.
 B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into
    the microphone input of a J3E transmitter, and
    the output is observed on a distortion analyzer.
 C. Two nonharmonically related audio tones are fed into
    the microphone input of a J3E transmitter, and
    the output is observed on an oscilloscope.
 D. Two nonharmonically related audio tones are fed into
    the microphone input of a J3E transmitter, and
    the output is observed on a wattmeter.


















3D 3.4
What audio frequencies are used in a TWO TONE TEST
of the linearity of an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. 20 Hz. and 20,000 Hz. tones must be used.
 B. 1200 Hz. and 2400 Hz. tones must be used.
 C. Any two audio tones may be used,
    if they are harmonically related.
 D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they
    must be within the transmitter audio passband,
    and should not be harmonically related.


3D 3.5
What can be determined by making a
TWO TONE TEST using an oscilloscope?

 A. The percent of frequency modulation.
 B. The percent of carrier phase shift.
 C. The frequency deviation.
 D. The amplifier linearity.


3D 4.1
How can the Grid Current meter in a power amplifier
be used as a neutralizing indicator?

 A. Tune for minimum change in Grid Current
    as the output circuit is changed.
 B. Tune for maximum change in Grid Current
    as the output circuit is changed.
 C. Tune for minimum grid current.
 D. Tune for maximum grid current.


3D 4.2
Why is Neutralization in some Vacuum Tube amplifiers necessary?

 A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q
    in practical tuned circuits.
 B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage.
 C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas.
 D. To cancel oscillation caused by the
    effects of interelectrode capacitance.


3D 4.3
How is Neutralization of an RF Amplifier accomplished?

 A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output
    to the input on alternate half cycles.
 B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output
    to the input shifted 360 degrees out of phase.
 C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output
    to the input shifted 180 degrees out of phase.
 D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output
    to the input with a proper DC bias.









3D 4.4
What purpose does a neutralization
circuit serve in an RF Amplifier?

 A. It controls differential gain.
 B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback.
 C. It eliminates circulating currents.
 D. It reduces incidental grid modulation.


3D 4.5
What is the reason for neutralizing the
final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

 A. To limit the modulation index.
 B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations.
 C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods.
 D. To keep the carrier on frequency.


3D 5.1
How can the PEP Output of a transmitter
be determined with an oscilloscope?

 A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load
    with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using
    PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(Rl).
 B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load
    with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using
    PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/Rl.
 C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load
    with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using
    PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(Rl).
 D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load
    with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using
    PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/Rl.


3D 5.5
What is the Output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 200 Volts Peak to Peak across a 50 Ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?

 A.  100 watts.
 B.  200 watts.
 C.  400 watts.
 D. 1000 watts.



















3D 5.6
What is the Output PEP from a transmitter when an
oscilloscope shows 500 Volts Peak to Peak across a 50 Ohm
resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals?

 A.  500 watts.
 B.  625 watts.
 C. 1250 watts.
 D. 2500 watts.


3D 5.7
What is the output PEP from a N0N transmitter
when an average reading wattmeter connected to the
transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts?

 A. 530 watts.
 B. 1060 watts.
 C. 1500 watts.
 D. 2120 watts.


3D 6.1
What item of test equipment contains
horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

 A. The ohmmeter.
 B. The signal generator.
 C. The ammeter.
 D. The oscilloscope.


3D 6.2
What types of signals does an oscilloscope measure?

 A. Any time dependent signal within the
    bandwith capability of the instrument.
 B. Blinker light signals from ocean going vessels.
 C. International nautical flag signals.
 D. Signals created by aeronautical flares.


3D 6.3
What is an OSCILLOSCOPE?

 A. An instrument that displays
    radiation resistance of an antenna.
 B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line.
 C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit.
 D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms.
















3D 6.4
What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope CRT?

 A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the CRT.
 B. Too high an intensity setting.
 C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier.
 D. Improperly adjusted focus.


3D 9.1
What is a SIGNAL TRACER?

 A. A Directional Finding antenna.
 B. An aid for following schematic diagrams.
 C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit.
 D. A device for drawing signal waveforms.


3D 9.2
How is a signal tracer used?

 A. To detect the presence of a signal
    in the various stage of a receiver.
 B. To locate a source of interference.
 C. To trace the path of a radio signal
    through the Ionosphere.
 D. To draw a wave form on paper.


3D 9.3
What is a signal tracer normally used for?

 A. To identify the source of radio transmissions.
 B. To make exact replicas of signals.
 C. To give a visual indication of standing waves
    on open-wire feedlines.
 D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver.


3D 10.1
What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate
Radio Frequency Interference to home entertainment systems?

 A. Install bypass inductors.
 B. Install bypass capacitors.
 C. Install metal oxide varistors.
 D. Install bypass resistors.



















3D 10.2
What should be done when a properly operating
Amateur Radio Station is the source of
interference to a nearby telephone?

 A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment.
 B. Contacting a phone service representative
    about installing RFI filters.
 C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference.
 D. Ground and shield the local
    telephone distribution amplifier.


3D 10.3
What type of sound would be heard from a public
address system when audio rectification occurs in
response to a nearby emission J3E transmitter?

 A. A steady hum that persists while the
    transmitter's carrier is on the air.
 B. On and Off humming or clicking.
 C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals.
 D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals.


3D 10.4
How can the possibility of Audio Rectification
occuring be minimized?

 A. By using a solid state transmitter.
 B. By using CW emission only.
 C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded.
 D. By using AM emission only.


3D 10.5
What type of sound would be heard from a public
address system when audio rectification occurs in
response to a nearby emission A3E transmitter?

 A. Audible, possibly distorted speech
    from the transmitter signals.
 B. On and Off humming or clicking.
 C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals.
 D. Extremely loud, slightly distorted speech
    from the transmitter's signals.




















3D 12.2
What is the reason for using a Speech
Processor with an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    reduces average transmitter power requirements.
 B. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone.
 C. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    improves voice frequency fidelity.
 D. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    improves signal intelligibility at the receiver.


3D 12.3
When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a
speech processor increase the PEP output?

 A. Yes.
 B. No.
 C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output.
 D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output.


3D 12.4
Under which band conditions should a
Speech Processor not be used?

 A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band.
 B. When the band is crowded.
 C. When the frequency in use is clear.
 D. When the sunspot count is relatively high.


3D 12.5
What effect can result from using a Speech Processor
with an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    reduces average transmitter power requirements.
 B. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone.
 C. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    improves voice frequency fidelity.
 D. A properly adjusted Speech processor
    improves signal intelligibility at the receiver.


3D 13.1
At what point in the coaxial line should an
electronic T-R switch be installed?

 A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter.
 B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna.
 C. Between the antenna and feed point.
 D. Right after the low-pass filter.










3D 13.2
Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one?

 A. Greater receiver sensitivity.
 B. Circuit simplicity.
 C. Higher operation speed.
 D. Cleaner output signals.


3D 13.3
What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?

 A. Oscilloscope.
 B. Audio CW filter.
 C. Antenna relay.
 D. Electronic T/R switch.


3D 14.6
What is an antenna NOISE BRIDGE?

 A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure
    of an antenna or other electrical circuit.
 B. An instrument for measuring the impedance
    of an antenna or other electrical circuit.
 C. An instrument for measuring solar flux.
 D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver.


3D 14.7
How is an antenna NOISE BRIDGE used?

 A. It is connected at the antenna feed point,
    and the noise is read directly.
 B. It is connected between a transmitter and
    an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR.
 C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown
    impedance and tuned for minimum noise.
 D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and
    adjusted for minimum SWR.


3D 15.1
How does the emitted waveform from a properly adjusted
emission J3E transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope?

 A. A vertical line.
 B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform.
 C. A square wave.
 D. Two loops at right angles.
















3D 15.2
What is the best instrument for checking transmitted
signal quality from an emissions A1A/J3E transmitter?

 A. A monitor oscilloscope.
 B. A field strength meter.
 C. A sidetone monitor.
 D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier.


3D 15.3
What is a MONITORING OSCILLOSCOPE?

 A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals.
 B. A device used to observe the waveform
    of a transmitted signal.
 C. A device used to display SSTV signals.
 D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage.


3D 15.4
How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in
order to check the quality of the transmitted signal?

 A. Connect the receiver IF output to the
    vertical deflection plates of the oscilloscope.
 B. Connect the transmitter audio input
    to the oscilloscope vertical input.
 C. Connect a receiving antenna directly
    to the oscilloscope vertical input.
 D. Connect the transmitter output to the
    vertical deflection plates of the oscilloscope.


3D 17.2
What is the most appropriate instrument to use when
determining antenna horizontal radiation patterns?

 A. A field strength meter.
 B. A grid-dip meter.
 C. A wave meter.
 D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter.


3D 17.3
What is a FIELD-STRENGTH METER?

 A. A device for determining the Standing
    Wave Ratio on a transmission line.
 B. A device for checking modulation
    on the output of a transmitter.
 C. A device for monitoring relative RF output.
 D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output.













3D 17.4
What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring
relative rf output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?

 A. A field-strength meter.
 B. An antenna noise bridge.
 C. A multimeter.
 D. A Transmatch.


3D 17.5
When the power output from a transmitter
is increased by four times how should the
S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change?

 A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit.
 B. Increase by approximately one S-unit.
 C. Increase by approximately four S-units.
 D. Decrease by approximately four S-units.


3D 17.6
How many times must the power output from a transmitter
change to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver
from S-8 to S-9?

 A. Approximately 2 times.
 B. Approximately 3 times.
 C. Approximately 4 times.
 D. Approximately 5 times.


--------------------------------------------------

End of Subelement 3BD.































FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BE.
Electrical Principals.     2 Questions.



3E 1.1
What is meant by the term IMPEDANCE?

 A. The electrical charge stored in a Capacitor.
 B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a
    circuit containing only Capacitance
 C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit.
 D. The force of repulsion presented to an
    electric field with the same charge.


3E 1.2
What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
containing both resistance and reactance called?

 A. Ohm.
 B. Joule.
 C. Impedance.
 D. Watt.


3E 3.1
What is meant by the term REACTANCE?

 A. Opposition to DC caused by Resistors.
 B. Opposition to AC caused by Inductors and Capacitors.
 C. A property of ideal Resistors in AC circuits.
 D. A large spark produced at switch contacts
    when an Inductor is de-energized.


3E 3.2
What is the opposition to the flow
of AC caused by Inductor called?

 A. Resistance.
 B. Reluctance.
 C. Admittance.
 D. Reactance.


3E 3.3
What is the opposition to the flow
of AC caused by Capacitor called?

 A. Resistance.
 B. Reluctance.
 C. Admittance.
 D. Reactance.












3E 3.4
How does a coil react to AC?

 A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance decreases.
 B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance also increases.
 C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance decreases.
 D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance also increases.


3E 3.5
How does a Capacitor react to AC?

 A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance decreases.
 B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance increases.
 C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance also increases.
 D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases,
    the reactance decreases.


3E 6.1
When will a power source deliver maximum output?

 A. When the impedance of the load is equal
    to the impedance of the source.
 B. When the SWR has reached a maximum value.
 C. When the power supply fuse rating equals
    the primary winding current.
 D. When air wound transformers are used
    instead of iron core transformers.


3E 6.2
What is meant by IMPEDANCE MATCHING?

 A. To make the load impedance much
    greater than the source impedance.
 B. To make the load impedance much
    less than the source impedance.
 C. To use a Balun at the antenna feed point.
 D. To make the load impedance equal
    to the source impedance.


















3E 6.3
What occurs when the Impedance of an electrical load
is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?

 A. The source delivers minimum power to the load.
 B. There will be a high SWR condition.
 C. No current can flow through the circuit.
 D. The source delivers maximum power to the load.


3E 6.4
Why is IMPEDANCE MATCHING important in radio work?

 A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load.
 B. So the load can draw minimum power from the source.
 C. To ensure that there is less
    resistance than reactance in the circuit.
 D. To ensure that the resistance
    and reactance in the circuit are equal.


3E 7.2
What is the unit measurement of Reactance?

 A. Mho.
 B. Ohm.
 C. Ampere.
 D. Siemen.


3E 7.4
What is the unit measurement of Impedance?

 A. Ohm.
 B. Volt.
 C. Ampere.
 D. Watt.


3E 10.1
What is a BEL?

 A. The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels.
 B. The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances.
 C. The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances
 D. The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances.




















3E 10.2
What is a DECIBEL.

 A. A unit used to describe a change
    in power levels equal to 0.1 bel.
 B. A unit used to describe a change
    in power levels equal to 0.01 bel.
 C. A unit used to describe a change
    in power levels equal to 10 bels.
 D. A unit used to describe a change
    in power levels equal to 100 bels.


3E 10.3
Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable
change in loudness is approximately how many dB?

 A. 12 dB.
 B.  6 dB.
 C.  3 dB.
 D.  1 dB.


3E 10.4
A two times increase in power results in a change of how may dB?

 A. Multiplying the original power by 2
    gives a new power that is 1 dB higher.
 B. Multiplying the original power by 2
    gives a new power that is 3 dB higher.
 C. Multiplying the original power by 2
    gives a new power that is 6 dB higher.
 D. Multiplying the original power by 2
    gives a new power that is 12 dB higher.


3E 10.5
An increase of 6 dB results from
raising the power by how may times?

 A. Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power.
 B. Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power.
 C. Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power.
 D. Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power.


3E 10.6
A decrease of 3 dB results from
lowering the power by how may times?

 A. Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power.
 B. Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power.
 C. Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power.
 D. Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power.












3E 10.7
A signal strength report is "10dB over S9". If the
transmitter power is reduce from 1500 Watts to 150
watts, what should be the new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 5dB


3E 10.8
A signal strength report is "20dB over S9". If the
transmitter power is reduce from 1500 Watts to 150
watts, what should be the new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 10dB


3E 10.9
A signal strength report is "20dB over S9". If the
transmitter power is reduce from 1500 Watts to 15
watts, what should be the new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 5dB


3E 12.1
If a 1.0 ampere current source is connected
to two parallel connected 10 ohm Resistors,
how much current passes through each Resistor?

 A. 10 amperes.
 B. 2 amperes.
 C. 1 ampere.
 D. 0.5 ampere.
























3E 12.3
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and
several branch Resistors, what relationship does
the total current have to the branch currents?

 A. The total equals the average of
    the branch current in each Resistor.
 B. The total equals the sum of the
    branch currents in each Resistor.
 C. The total decreases as more parallel
    Resistors are added to the circuit.
 D. The total is calculated by adding the voltage
    drops across each Resistor and multiplying the
    sum by the total number of all circuit Resistors.


3E 13.1
How many Watts of electrical power are being dissipated
when a 400 VDC power source supplies an 800 Ohm load?

 A. 0.5 Watt is dissipated.
 B. 200 Watts are dissipated.
 C. 400 Watts are dissipated.
 D. 320,000 Watts are dissipated.


3E 13.2
How many Watts of electrical power are being consumed
by a 12 VDC pilot light which dwaws 0.2 Amperes?

 A. 60 watts.
 B. 24 watts.
 C. 6 watts.
 D. 2.4 watts.


3E 13.3
How many Watts are being dissipated when
7.0 miliamperes flows through 1.25 Kilohms?

 A. Approximately 61 milliwatts.
 B. Approximately 39 milliwatts.
 C. Approximately 11 milliwatts.
 D. Approximately 9 milliwatts.


3E 14.1
How is the total resistance calculated
calculated for several Resistors in series?

 A. The total resistance must be divided by the number of
    Resistors to ensure accurate measurement of resistance.
 B. The total resistance is always the lowest-rated resistance.
 C. The total resistance is found by adding
    the individual resistances together.
 D. The tolerance of each Resistor must be raised
    proportionally to the number of Resistors.









3E 14.2
What is the total resistance of two equal,
parallel connected Resistors?

 A. Twice the sum of either resistance?
 B. The sum of the two resistances.
 C. The total resistance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact resistances.
 D. Half the resistance of either Resistor.


3E 14.3
What is the total inductance of two equal,
parallel connected Inductors?

 A. Half the inductance of either Inductor,
    assuming no mutual inductance.
 B. Twice the inductance of either Inductor,
    assuming no mutual inductance.
 C. The sum of the two Inductances,
    assuming no mutual inductance.
 D. The total inductance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact inductances.


3E 14.4
What is the total capacitance of two equal,
parallel connected Capacitors?

 A. Half the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 B. Twice the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 C. The value of either Capacitor.
 D. The total capacitance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact capacitances.


3E 14.5
What is the total resistance of two equal,
series connected Resistors?

 A. Half the resistance of either Resistor.
 B. Twice the resistance of either Resistor.
 C. The value of either Resistor.
 D. The total resistance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact resistances.





















3E 14.6
What is the total inductance of two equal,
series connected Inductors?

 A. Half the inductance of either Inductor,
    assuming no mutual coupling.
 B. Twice the inductance of either Inductor,
    assuming no mutual coupling.
 C. The value of either Inductor, assuming no mutual coupling.
 D. The total inductance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact inductances.


3E 14.7
What is the total capacitance of two equal,
series connected Capacitors?

 A. Half the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 B. Twice the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 C. The value of either Capacitor.
 D. The total capacitance cannot be determined
    without knowing the exact capacitances.


3E 15.1
What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding in a
transformer when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117 VAC?

 A. 2369 volts.
 B. 526.5 volts
 C. 26 volts
 D. 5.8 volts


3E 15.2
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an
audio amplifier having an output impedance of 200 ohms
to a speaker having a load impedance of 10 ohms?

 A. 4.47 to 1.
 B. 14.14 to 1.
 C. 20 to 1.
 D. 400 to 1.


3E 15.3
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an
audio amplifier having an output impedance of 600 ohms
to a speaker having a load impedance of 4 ohms?

 A. 12.2 to 1.
 B. 24.4 to 1.
 C. 150 to 1.
 D. 300 to 1.












3E 15.4
What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a
transformer with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an
audio amplifier having an output impedance of 2000 Ohms?

 A. 576 ohms.
 B. 83.3 ohms.
 C. 7.0 ohms.
 D. 3.5 ohms.


3E 16.1
What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of
heat over time in a resistive element as would an applied
sine wave ac voltage?

 A. A DC voltage equal to the
    Peak To Peak value of the AC voltage.
 B. A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage.
 C. A DC voltage equal to the Average value of the AC voltage.
 D. A DC voltage equal to the Peak value of the AC voltage.


3E 16.2
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave
which has an RMS voltage of 117 volts?

 A. 82.7 volts.
 B. 165.5 volts.
 C. 183.9 volts.
 D. 330.9 volts.


3E 16.3
A sine wave of 17 Volts Peak is
equivalent to how many Volts RMS?

 A. 8.5 volts.
 B. 12 volts.
 C. 24 volts.
 D. 34 volts.


--------------------------------------------------

End of Subelement 3BE.




















FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BF.
Circuit Components.     1 Question.


--------------------------------------------------

3F 1.5
What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature
on the resistance of a carbon resistor?

 A. The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10
    degrees centigrade that the temperature increases.
 B. The resistance stays the same.
 C. The resistance change depends on the resistor's
    temperature coefficient rating.
 D. The resistance becomes time dependent.


3F 2.6
What type of capacitor is often used in power
supplies to filter the rectified AC?

 A. Disc ceramic.
 B. Vacuum variable.
 C. Mica.
 D. Electrolytic.


3F 2.7
What kind of capacitors is used in power supply
circuits to filter transient voltage spikes
across the transformer secondary winding.

 A. High value.
 B. Trimmer.
 C. Vacuum variable.
 D. Supressor.


3F 3.5
How may inductors become Self-Resonant?

 A. Through distributed electromagnetism.
 B. Through eddy currents.
 C. Through distributed capacitance.
 D. Through parasitic hysteresis.


3F 4.1
What circuit component can change 120 VAC to 400 VAC ?

 A. A transformer.
 B. A capacitor.
 C. A Diode.
 D. An SCR.











3F 4.2
What is the source of energy connected to in a transformer?

 A. To the secondary winding.
 B. To the primary winding.
 C. To the core.
 D. To the plates.


3F 4.3
When no load is attached to the secondary winding of a
transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?

 A. Magnetizing current.
 B. Direct current.
 C. Excitation current.
 D. Stabilizing current.


3F 4.4
In what terms are the Primary and Secondary windings
of a power transformer usually specified?

 A. Joules per Second.
 B. Peak Inverse Voltage.
 C. Coloumbs per Second
 D. Volts or Volt-Amperes.


3F 5.1
What is the PEAK INVERSE VOLTAGE rating
of a power supply rectifier?

 A. The highest transient voltage the diode will handle.
 B. 1.4 time the AC frequency?
 C. The maximum voltage to be applied
    in the non-conducting direction.
 D. 2.8 time the AC frequency.


3F 5.2
Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected?

 A. Because of their proximity to the power transformer.
 B. Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot.
 C. Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages.
 D. Because of their use in high-voltage applications.


3F 5.4
What are the two major ratings for silicon diodes
rectifiers of the type used in power supply curcuits
which must not be exceeded?

 A. Peak Load Impedance;  Peak Voltage.
 B. Average Power;  Average Voltage.
 C. Capacitive Reactance;  Avalanche Voltage.
 D. Peak Inverse Voltage;  Average Forward Current.

End of Subelement 3BF.






FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BG.
Practical Circuits.     1 Question.


--------------------------------------------------

3G 1.1
Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in
parallel with power supply rectifier diodes?

 A. To equalize voltage drops and guard
    against transient voltage spikes.
 B. To ensure that the Back Voltage across
    each diode is about the same.
 C. To smooth the output waveform.
 D. To decrease the output voltage.


3G 1.2
What function do capacitors serve when resistors and
capacitors are connected in parallel with
high voltage power supply rectifier diodes?

 A. They double or triple the output voltage.
 B. They block the alternating current.
 C. They protect those diodes that develop
    back resistance faster than other diodes.
 D. They regulate the output voltage.


3G 1.3
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full wave
rectifier connected to a resistive load.

 A. A steady DC voltage.
 B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input.
 C. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input.
 D. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input.


3G 1.4
How many degrees of a cycle does
a Half Wave rectifier utilize?

 A. 90 degrees.
 B. 180 degrees.
 C. 270 degrees.
 D. 360 degrees.


















3G 1.5
How many degrees of a cycle does
a Full Wave rectifier utilize?

 A. 90 degrees.
 B. 180 degrees.
 C. 270 degrees.
 D. 360 degrees.


3G 1.6
Where is a power supply Bleeder Resistor connected?

 A. Across the filter capacitor.
 B. Across the power supply input.
 C. Between the transformer primary and secondary.
 D. Across the inductor in the output filter.


3G 1.7
What components comprise a power supply filter network?

 A. Diodes.
 B. Transformers and Transistors.
 C. Quartz crystals.
 D. Capacitors and Inductors.


3G 1.8
What should be the Peak Inverse Voltage rating
of the rectifier in a Half Wave Power supply?

 A. One quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.


3G 1.9
What should be the Peak Inverse Voltage rating
of the rectifier in a Full Wave Power supply?

 A. One quarter to one half the normal peak
    output voltage of the power supply.
 B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 D. One to two times the normal peak
    output voltage of the power supply.


3G 2.8
What should the impedance of a Low Pass Filter
be as compared to the impedance of the
transmission line into which it is inserted?

 A. Substantially higher.
 B. About the same.
 C. Substantially lower.
 D. Twice the transmission line impedance.







FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BH.
Signals and Emissions.     2 Questions.


--------------------------------------------------

3H 2.1
What is the term for alteration of the Amplitude of
an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?

 A. Frequency Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Amplitude Rectification.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.


3H 2.3
What is the term for altering the phase of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?

 A. Pulse Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Phase Rectification.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.


3H 2.4
What is the term for alteration of the frequency of
an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?

 A. Phase Rectification.
 B. Frequency Rectification.
 C. Amplitude Modulation.
 D. Frequency modulation.


3H 3.1
In what emission type does the instantaneous
amplitude (envelope) of the radio frequency signal
vary in accordance with the modulating AF?

 A. Frequency Shift Keying.
 B. Pulse Modulation.
 C. Frequency Modulation.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.


3H 3.2
What determines the spectrum space occupied
by each group of sideband frequencies
generated by a correctly operating
emission A3E transmitter?

 A. The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter.
 B. The phase angle between the Audio and
    Radio Frequencies being mixed.
 C. The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO.
 D. The CW keying speed.








3H 4.1
How much is the carrier supressed
in an emission J3E transmission.

 A. No morehan 20 dB below peak output power.
 B. No more than 30 dB below peak output power.
 C. At least 40 dB below peak output power.
 D. At least 60 dB below peak output power.


3H 4.2
What is one advantage of carrier supression
in an emission A3E transmission?

 A. Only half the bandwidth is required
    for the same information content.
 B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable
    with lower distortion.
 C. More power can be put into the sidebands.
 D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive
    a Double Sideband Supressed Carrier signal.


3H 5.1
Which one of the telephony emissiona popular with
Amateurs occupies the narrowest band of frequencies?

 A. Single Sideband Emissions.
 B. Double Sideband Emissions.
 C. Phase Modulated Emissions.
 D. Frequency Modulated Emissions.


3H 5.2
Which emission type is produced by a telephony
transmitter having a balanced modulator
followed by a 2.5 kHz. bandpass filter?

 A. PM
 B. AM
 C. SSB
 D. FM


3H 7.2
What emission is produced by a reactance
modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

 A. Miltiplex Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Amplitude Modulation.
 D. Pulse modulation.














3H 8.1
What purpose does the carrier serve
in an emission A3E transmission?

 A. The carrier separates the sidebands
    so they don't cancel in the receiver.
 B. The carrier contains the the modulation information.
 C. The carrier maintains symmetry
    of the sidebands to prevent distortion.
 D. The carrier serves as a refrence signal
    for demodulation by an envelope detector.


3H 8.2
What signal component aprears in the center of the
frequency band of an emission A3E transmission?

 A. The lower sidebands.
 B. The subcarrier.
 C. The carrier.
 D. The pilot tone.


3H 9.1
What sidebands are generated by an emission A3E
transmitter with a 7250 kHz. carrier modulated
less than 100% by an 800 Hz. pure Sine wave?

 A. 7250.8 kHz. and 7251.6 Khz.
 B. 7250.0 kHz. and 7250.8 Khz.
 C. 7249.2 kHz. and 7250.8 Khz.
 D. 7248.4 kHz. and 7249.2 Khz.


3H 10.1
How many times over the maximum deviation is the
bandwith of an emission F3E transmission?

 A. 1.5 times.
 B. At least 2.
 C. At least 4.
 D. The bandwith cannot be determined without knowing
    the exact carrier and modulating frequencies involved.


3H 10.2
What is the total bandwith of an emission F3E transmission
having 5 kHz. Deviation and 3 kHz. AF?

 A.  3 kHz.
 B.  5 kHz.
 C.  8 kHz.
 D. 16 kHz.













3H 11.1
What happens to the shape of the RF envelope,as viewed
on an oscilloscope, of an emission A3E transmission?

 A. The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases
    in proportion to the modulating signal.
 B. The amplitude of the envelope remains constant.
 C. The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases
    in proportion to the modulating signal.
 D. The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases
    in proportion to the modulating signal.


3H 13.1
What results when an emission J3E transmitter is overmodulated?

 A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects.
 B. The signal occupies less bandwith
    with poor high frequency responce.
 C. The signal has higher fidelity
    and improved signal to noise ratio.
 D. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwith.


3H 13.2
What results when an emission A3E transmitter is overmodulated?

 A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects.
 B. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwith.
 C. The signal occupies less bandwith
    with poor high frequency responce.
 D. The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates.


3H 15.1
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz.,
Reactance Modulated oscillator in a 5kHz. deviation,
146.52 MHz. F3E transmitter?

 A. 41.67 HZ.
 B. 416.7 HZ.
 C. 5 kHz.
 D. 12 kHz.


3H 15.2
What stage in a transmitter would translate
a 5.3 MHz. input signal to 14.3 MHz.?

 A. A Mixer.
 B. A Beat Frequency Oscillator.
 C. A Frequency Multiplier.
 D. A Linear Translator.













3H 16.4
How many frequency components are in the signal
from an AF Shift keyer at any one instant?

 A. One.
 B. Two.
 C. Three.
 D. Four.


3H 16.5
How is the frequency shift related
to the keying speed in an FSK signal?

 A. The frequency shift in Hertz. must be
    at least four times the keying speed in WPM.
 B. The frequency shift must not exceed
    15 Hz. per WPM of keying speed.
 C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts.
 D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts.


--------------------------------------------------











































FCC General Exam Question Pool.   Subelement 3BI.
Antennas and Feed Lines.     4 Questions.


--------------------------------------------------

3I 1.3
Why is a Yagi Antenna often used for Amateur
Radio communications on the 20 meter band?

 A. It provides excellent omnidirectional
    coverage in the horizontal plane.
 B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to
    erect than a Dipole or Vertical Antenna.
 C. It discriminates against interference from
    other stations off to the side or behind.
 D. It provides the highest possible angle of
    radiation for the HF bands.


3I 1.7
What method is best suited to match an
Unbalanced Coaxial Feed Line to a Yagi Antenna?

 A. "T" match.
 B. Delta match.
 C. Hairpin match.
 D. Gamma match.


3I 1.9
How can the bandwith of a Parasitic Beam Antenna be increased?

 A. Use larger diameter elements.
 B. Use closer element spacing.
 C. Use traps on the elements.
 D. Use tapered diameter elements.


3I 2.1
How much gain over a One Half Wavelength Dipole
can a two element Cubical Quad Antenna provide?

 A. 0.6 dB.
 B. 2 dB.
 C. 6 dB.
 D. 12 dB.



















3I 3.1
How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna
driven element for 21.4 MHz.?

 A. 1.17 feet.
 B. 11.7 feet.
 C. 47 feet.
 D. 469 feet.


3I 3.2
How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna
driven element for 14.3 MHz.?

 A. 1.75 feet.
 B. 17.6 feet.
 C. 23.4 feet.
 D. 70.3 feet.


3I 3.3
How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna
reflector element for 29.6 MHz.?

 A. 8.23 feet.
 B. 8.7 feet.
 C. 9.7 feet.
 D. 34.8 feet.


3I 3.4
How long is each leg of a Symetrical Delta Loop
Antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz.?

 A. 8.75 feet.
 B. 11.32 feet.
 C. 11.7 feet.
 D. 35 feet.


3I 3.5
How long is each leg of a Symetrical Delta Loop
Antenna driven element for 24.9 MHz.?

 A. 10.09 feet.
 B. 13.05 feet.
 C. 13.45 feet.
 D. 40.36 feet.


















3I 3.6
How long is each leg of a Symetrical Delta Loop
Antenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz.?

 A. 18.26 feet.
 B. 23.76 feet.
 C. 24.35 feet.
 D. 73.05 feet.


3I 3.7
How long is the driven element of a Yagi Antenna for 14.0 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 17 feet.
 B. Approximately 33 feet.
 C. Approximately 35 feet.
 D. Approximately 66 feet.


3I 3.8
How long is the director element
of a Yagi Antenna for 21.1 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 42 feet.
 B. Approximately 21 feet.
 C. Approximately 17 feet.
 D. Approximately 10.5 feet.


3I 3.9
How long is the reflector element
of a Yagi Antenna for 28.1 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 8.75 feet.
 B. Approximately 16.6 feet.
 C. Approximately 17.5 feet.
 D. Approximately 35 feet.


3I 5.1
What is the feedpoint impedance for a Half Wave
Dipole HF Antenna suspended horizontally one
quarter wavelength or more above the ground?

 A. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive.
 B. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive.
 C. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive.
 D. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive.


















3I 5.2
What is the feedpoint impedance of a Quarter Wavelength
Vertical HF Antenna with a horizontal ground plane?

 A. 18 ohms.
 B. 36 ohms.
 C. 52 ohms.
 D. 72 ohms.


3I 5.3
What is the advantage of downward
sloping radials on a Ground Plane Antenna?

 A. Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle.
 B. Sloping the radials downward brings the
    feedpoint impedance closer to 300 Ohms.
 C. Sloping the radials downward allows
    rainwater to run off the antenna.
 D. Sloping the radials downward brings the
    feedpoint impedance closer to 50 Ohms.


3I 5.4
What happens to the feedpoint impedance of a
Ground Plane Antenna when the radials slope
downward from the base of the antenna?

 A. The feedpoint impedance Decreases.
 B. The feedpoint impedance Increases.
 C. The feedpoint impedance stays the same.
 D. The feedpoint impedance becomes purely capacative.


3I 6.1
Compared to a Dipole Antenna, what are the directional
radiation characteristics of a Cubical Quad HF Antenna?

 A. The Quad has more directivity in the horizontal
    plane but less directivity in the vertical plane.
 B. The Quad has less directivity in the horizontal
    plane but more directivity in the vertical plane.
 C. The Quad has more directivity in both
    horizontal and vertical planes.
 D. The Quad has less directivity in both
    horizontal and vertical planes.




















3I 6.2
What is the radiation pattern of an
ideal Half Wavelength HF Dipole antenna?

 A. If it is installed parallel to the Earth,
    it radiates well in a figure eight pattern
    at right angles to the antenna wire.
 B. If it is installed parallel to the Earth,
    it radiates well in a figure eight pattern
    off both ends of the antenna wire.
 C. If it is installed parallel to the Earth,
    it radiates well in all directions.
 D. If it is installed parallel to the Earth, the
    pattern will have two lobes on one side of the
    antenna wire and one larger lobe on the other side.


3I 6.3
How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation
pattern of a Horizontal Dipole HF Antenna?

 A. If the antenna is too far from the ground,
    the pattern becomes unpredictable.
 B. If the antenna is less than one half wavelength
    from the ground, reflected radio waves from the
    ground distort the radiation pattern of the antenna.
 C. A Dipole Antenna's radiation pattern is
    unaffected by its distance to the ground.
 D. If the antenna is less than one half wavelength from the
    ground, radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced.


3I 6.4
What does the term ANTENNA FRONT TO BACK RATIO mean?

 A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors.
 B. The relative position of the driven element with
    respect to the reflectors and directors.
 C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared
    to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction.
 D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared
    to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction.


3I 6.5
What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF Dipole
ntenna will a slightly smaller parasitic element located
a few feet away in the same horizontal plane have?

 A. The radiation pattern will not change appreciably.
 B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
    parallel to the two elements.
 C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane,
    away from the ground.
 D. If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major
    lobe will develop in the horizontal plane to the side
    of the driven element toward the parasitic element.









3I 6.6
What is the meaning of the term MAIN LOBE as
used in reference to a directional antenna?

 A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna.
 B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element.
 C. The direction of maximum radiated
    field strength from a radiating antenna.
 D. The maximum Voltage Standing Wave
    point on a radiating element.


3I 7.1
Upon what does the characteristic impedance
of a parallel conductor feed line depend?

 A. The distance between the centers of the conductors
    and the radius of the conductors.
 B. The distance between the centers of the conductors
    and the length of the line.
 C. The radius of the conductors
    and the frequency of the signal.
 D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line.


3I 7.2
What is the Characteristic Impedance of various coaxial cables
commonly used for antenna feed lines at Amateur Stations?

 A. Around 25 and 30 Ohms.
 B. Around 50 and 75 Ohms.
 C. Around 80 and 100 Ohms.
 D. Around 500 and 750 Ohms.


3I 7.3
What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial
cable have upon its characteristic impedance?

 A. The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance.
 B. The length affects the characteristic
    impedance primarily above 144 MHz.
 C. The length affects the characteristic
    impedance primarily below 144 MHz.
 D. The length affects the characteristic
    impedance at any frequency.


3I 7.4
What is the characteristic impedance of
Flat Ribbon TV Type twin lead?

 A. 50 ohms.
 B. 75 ohms.
 C. 100 ohms.
 D. 300 ohms.










3I 8.4
What is the cause of power being
reflected back down an Antenna Feed Line?

 A. Operating an antenna at its resonate frequency.
 B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle.
 C. A difference between Feed Line Impedance
    and Antenna Feed Point Impedance.
 D. Feeding the antenna with Unbalanced Feed Line.


3I 9.3
What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a
50 Ohm feed line is connected to a Resonant
Antenna having a 200 Ohm feedpoint impedance?

 A. 4:1
 B. 1:4
 C. 2:1
 D. 1:2


3I 9.4
What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a
50 Ohm feed line is connected to a Resonant
Antenna having a 10 Ohm feedpoint impedance?

 A. 2:1
 B. 50:1
 C. 1:5
 D. 5:1


3I 9.5
What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a
50 Ohm feed line is connected to a Resonant
Antenna having a 50 Ohm feedpoint impedance?

 A. 2:1
 B. 50:50
 C. 1:1
 D. 0:0


3I 11.1
How does the Characteristic Impedance of a coaxial cable affect
the amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through it?

 A. The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic
    impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at
    frequencies below 144 MHz.
 B. The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic
    impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at
    frequencies below 144 MHz.
 C. The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance is
    about the same at all Amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz.
 D. The difference in attenuation depends
    on the emission type in use.








3I 11.2
How does the amount of attenuation of a 2 Meter signal passing
through a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 Meter signal?

 A. The attenuation is greater at 2 meters.
 B. The attenuation is less at 2 meters.
 C. The attenuation is the same at both frequencies.
 D. The difference in attenuation depends
    on the emission type in use.


3I 11.4
What is the effect on Feed Line Attenuation
when Flat Ribbon "Twin Lead" gets wet?

 A. Attenuation decreases slightly.
 B. Attenuation remains the same.
 C. Attenuation decreases sharply.
 D. Attenuation increases.


3I 11.7
Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be
applied to the ?utside of Flat Ribbon TV Type Twinlead?

 A. To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors.
 B. To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed line.
 C. To increase the velocity factor of the feed line.
 D. To help dissipate heat during high SWR operation.


3I 11.8
In what values are RF Feed Line Losses usually expressed?

 A. Bels/1000 ft.
 B.   dB/1000 ft.
 C. Bels/100 ft.
 D.   dB/100 ft.


3I 11.10
As operating frequency increases, what
happens to the dialectric losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decreases.
 B. The losses decreases to zero.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses increase.


3I 11.12
As operating frequency decreases, what
happens to the dielectric losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decreases.
 B. The losses increases.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses become infinite.








3I 12.1
What condition must be satisfied to prevent Standing Waves
of Voltage and Current on an Antenna Feed Line?

 A. The Antenna Feed Point must be at DC ground potential.
 B. The feed line must be an odd number of
    electrical quarter wavelengths long.
 C. The feed line must be an even number of
    physical half wavelengths long.
 D. The Antenna Feed Point Impedance must be matched to
    the Characteristic Impedance of the Feed Line.


3I 12.2
How is an Inductively Coupled Matching Network
used in an antenna system consisting of a
Center Fed Resonant Dipole and Coaxial Feed Line?

 A. An Inductively Coupled Matching Network is
    not normally used in a resonant antenna system.
 B. An Inductively Coupled Matching Network is
    used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level.
 C. An Inductively Coupled Matching Network can be used to
    match the unbalanced condition at the transmitter output
    to the balanced condition required by the Coaxial Cable.
 D. An Inductively Coupled Matching Network can used at the
    Antenna Feed Point to tune out the radiation resistance.


3I 12.5
What is an Antenna - Transmission Line MISMATCH?

 A. A condition where the Feed Point Impedance of the Antenna
    does not equal the Output Impedance of the transmitter.
 B. A condition where the Output Impedance
    of the transmitter does not equal the
    Characteristic Impedance of the feed line.
 C. A condition where a Half Wavelength Antenna is being
    fed with a transmission line of some length other